Jesus Is Sometimes Referred To As The Son Of Which Old Testament Man?

Why is Ezekiel called son of man if it is a title for Jesus?

  1. Answer to the question The word ″son of man″ is used in a variety of contexts in the Bible.
  2. In the New Testament, Jesus is referred to as the Son of Man a total of 88 times, which is a significant number.
  3. Son of man is a word that may also be found in the Old Testament.

Over 90 times throughout the book of Ezekiel, the prophet is referred to as ″son of man.″ While both Jesus and Ezekiel can legitimately be referred to as ″son of man,″ there is something particularly distinctive in the way the term is used to Christ.In the gospels, Jesus refers to himself as the Son of Man a number of times (e.g., Matthew 16:27; Mark 14:21; Luke 7:34; John 3:13).The usage of this term by Jesus connects Him to Daniel 7:13–14, which describes the coming Messiah as follows: ″There before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven….He was endowed with authority, grandeur, and sovereign power, and he was worshipped by all peoples, countries, and men of every language on the face of the earth.His dominion is an immortal dominion that will never be destroyed, and his kingdom is a kingdom that will never be destroyed.

When Jesus used the phrase Son of Man to refer to Himself during His earthly ministry, the teachers of the Law would have immediately grasped what Jesus was getting at.The usage of the word by Jesus alludes to His high position as a member of the Godhead, as well as the fact that He would carry out Daniel’s prophesy.Furthermore, the word ″son of man″ is only seen in the gospels when it is used in conjunction with the definite article, the.Jesus consistently referred to himself as ″the Son of Man,″ as if he were the only one who existed.

  • By use the definite article, Jesus draws a distinction between Himself and other biblical figures who are linked with the same phrase.
  • Ezekiel is never referred to as ″the son of man″; rather, he is referred to as ″a son of man,″ as in ″one among many.″ The word ″son of man″ is used frequently in the Bible, and it simply refers to a ″man.″ It draws attention to the humanity of a person.
  • For Ezekiel, who was frequently addressed as ″son of man″ (e.g., Ezekiel 2:1; 3:1; 4:1; 5:1), God most likely used this method of direct approach in order to emphasize the contrast between Ezekiel’s human status and the transcendent grandeur of the Creator.
  • A vision that Ezekiel received of God’s majesty is described in the book’s first chapter, which depicts a scene filled with wheels and eyes, as well as storms and flames and weird heavenly creatures.
  • God refers to Ezekiel as ″son of man″ in the first line of the following chapter, which follows.

While standing in the presence of God’s unsurpassable splendor, the prophet couldn’t help but see his own human weakness and limitations.God is God, and Ezekiel is simply a ″son of man″ in the eyes of God.Specifically in Jesus’ instance, the use of the title Son of Man draws attention to Christ’s humanity as well.The distinction is that He is the Son of Man, which means that He represents the pinnacle of human dignity.Jesus is the Sinless One, humanity perfected, and the one who will bring God and man together once and for all.

Questions concerning Ezekiel can be found here.Why is Ezekiel referred to as ″son of man″ if ″son of man″ is a title reserved for Jesus?

″Jesus – The Son Of Man?″

  • Despite the fact that Jesus claimed to be the divine Son of God, His preferred self-designation was by far the more common ‘Son of Man.’ What is the significance of Jesus referring to Himself as the Son of Man, and how do we know that he truly did? As I looked into the distance, I saw a figure who appeared to be the Son of Man, who was descending from the clouds of heaven.″ Daniel 7:13 (NIV) Whenever we inquire as to how we know that Jesus claimed the title ″Son of Man″ for Himself (as opposed to a mythical title afterwards attributed to Him by the Gospel authors), we do it for the benefit of those who are skeptical of the claims of the Gospels. A sceptic is someone who does not believe in the Bible and does not take it on faith. The one who wants ‘just the facts,’ as he puts it. Because of this individual, we pose the questions, ″Can we determine if Jesus truly identified himself as the Son of Man?″ and ″Can we determine whether Jesus genuinely identified himself as the Son of Man?″ ‘And what exactly does it mean?’ So let’s get started. Despite skepticism, many academics think that Jesus referred to Himself as the Son of Man since it is doubtful that this was a term coined by the early Church. When it comes to Jesus’ preferred self-designation, he goes for the title ″Son of Man.″ However, it is never used in reference to Jesus in the epistles. In reality, the phrase appears just four times in the New Testament outside of the Gospels and never in any extra-biblical Christian texts within the first 120 years after Jesus’ death and resurrection. The question is this: how plausible is it that the Church invented the term Son of Man as Jesus’ favorite self-description, given that the Church itself did not refer to him in this fashion prior to his death? As a result, what exactly did Jesus mean when He referred to Himself as the Son of Man? Some believe that the title ″Son of Man″ lays a greater focus on Jesus’ humanity as opposed to the word ″Son of God,″ which sets a greater emphasis on His divinity. It does not take into consideration the major historical context in which Jesus employs the phrase, nor does it consider how Jesus interpreted it. It is critical to understand how Jesus interpreted the word ‘Son of Man,’ because He used it to refer to Himself more than any other expression. Let us return to the Old Testament and consider what the prophet Daniel had to say in order to find the solution. When I gazed in my vision at night, there before me was someone who appeared like a son of man, who was approaching with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was escorted into the presence of the God of the Sun. He was endowed with authority, grandeur, and sovereign power, and he was worshipped by all peoples, countries, and men of every language on the face of the earth. His dominion is an immortal dominion that will never be destroyed, and his kingdom is a kingdom that will never be destroyed too. (Daniel 7:13-14
  • Revelation 21:5) ″The son of man, who came with the clouds of heaven. He was granted dominion, glory, and royal power.,″ Daniel writes. Consider the following remarks made by Jesus in the New Testament Gospels in light of this perspective: For just as the Father possesses life in himself, he has provided the Son the ability to possess life in himself. And since he is the Son of Man, he has been granted the right to judge others. (See also John 5:27.) It will be at that time that a sign from the Son of Man will come in the sky, and every nation on the face of the globe will weep. They will see the arrival of the Son of Man in the clouds of the sky, accompanied by tremendous power and majesty. (Matthew 24:30
  • Mark 10:45) So be on the lookout
  • I’ve told you everything ahead of time, so be prepared. After that suffering, however, ‘the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light
  • the stars will fall from the sky, and the celestial bodies will be shaken,’ according to the Bible. Men will see the arrival of the Son of Man in the clouds, accompanied by great power and splendor. Afterwards, he will dispatch his angels to gather his elect from all four winds, from all four corners of the earth to all four corners of the skies. (Matthew 13:24–27) At that point, people will witness the Son of Man appearing in a cloud, accompanied by tremendous power and glory. (See also Luke 21:27) As a result of these scriptures, it appears that when Jesus referred to Himself as the Son of Man, He was alluding to Daniel 7
  • in addition, some first century Jews identified the Son of Man as also being the Christ or Messiah
  • and Jesus had just spoken of His death by crucifixion as having been ‘lifted up.’ ‘How can you say, ‘The Son of Man must be hoisted up,’ when we have heard from the Law that Christ will be with us forever?’ the throng questioned. Who exactly is this ‘Son of Man?’
  • Additionally, Jesus thought that the Son of Man, the Son of God, and the Messiah (Christ) were all one and the same individual. However, in a fascinating passage, He answers affirmatively to the Jewish leadership’s linking both the Son of God and Christ, then adds Son of Man to his claim to be all three at the same time.
  1. When the high priest confronted him, he said, ″I charge you on oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God.″ ‘Yes, that is exactly as you say,’ Jesus responded to the question.
  2. I say to you all, though: In the future, when God appears, you will see the Son of Man seated at His right hand, descending on the clouds of heaven,’ says the Lord Jesus Christ.
  3. As a result, the high priest tore his garments and exclaimed: ″He has committed blasphemy!″ What is the point of having any more witnesses?

Look, you’ve now been exposed to the blasphemy.’What are your thoughts?’ They responded by saying that he was deserving of death.(Matthew 26:63-66; Mark 10:63-66) After all was said and done, Jesus recognized the Son of Man to have existed prior to His human birth.Except for the one who comes directly from heaven, no one else has ever entered the kingdom of heaven.This is the Son of Man.

(See also John 3:13) What if you witness the Son of Man ascend to the place where he was previously?(See also John 6:62) Finally, Jesus’ favorite way to refer to himself was to call himself ‘Son of Man.’ He interpreted the title to allude to the divine Son of Man in Daniel 7, who would reign with majesty and authority in the earthly kingdom.Furthermore, He believed the Son of Man to be the pre-existent Son of God and Messiah, as well as the Son of Man.What was Jesus’ perception of Himself?

  • He was clearly under the impression that He was the divine Son of Man.

Jesus as the Son of God

  1. Jesus is the Son of God.
  2. According to biblical principles, this remark is fundamental to Christian orthodoxy and should be taken as such.
  3. At the same time, it has also been one of the most misunderstood, contested, and confusing issues in the Church’s history, and it is still one of the most controversial.

A number of councils, including the councils of Nicea (AD 325) and Chalcedon (AD 451), were held in response to heresies relating to what it meant to be Jesus’ son of God.Taking a more inductive approach, we can see that the phrase ″son of God″ is employed several times throughout the Bible.How are we supposed to make sense of such a massive title?Across the remainder of this article, I will trace the theme of sonship throughout the Bible to show how it ultimately leads to Jesus Christ.We shall be better positioned to grasp how Christ is the son of God as a result of this survey.

And, perhaps most significantly, we shall see how Jesus’ sonship is tied to both his dominant humanity and his everlasting Sonship.

The Son of God in Biblical Theology

  1. Graeme Goldsworthy discovered fifteen separate usage of the word ″son of God″ in the Bible while conducting an examination of biblical material on the subject.
  2. 1 D.
  3. A.

Carson, in a similar vein, discusses how this ″Christological term″ has been ″sometimes missed, often misinterpreted, and now challenged″ throughout history.2 The biblical scholar demonstrates that the term ″son of X″ is not always biological, but rather professional (i.e., your father defines your profession), and that it has a broad range of meanings in different contexts.3 Carson identifies seven potential uses for the term ″son of God,″ including the following: 4 The sons of God include Adam, Israel, David, God’s covenant people, those adopted by God (through Christ),5 imitators of God, and believers who shall inherit the kingdom of God.He also acknowledges that the phrase ″son of God″ is employed in the context of angels (e.g., Job 1:6, 2:1, 38:7; compare.Gen.

6:4), but he restricts his attention to human uses.6 I’m going to do the same thing.More precisely, Christ himself is referred to as ″Son of God″ in at least four different times throughout the Bible.7 ″Son of God″ in the sense that he fulfills the roles of Adam, Israel, and David, all of whom were previously fulfilled by other people.

  • However, Jesus is also the (4) divine Son, in addition to being a covenant mediator who trumps all of God’s prior ″sons of God.″ We can clearly see why this title is ″occasionally misconstrued,″ as the author himself has stated.
  • All of these applications would be considered in a comprehensive study of Jesus as God’s Son.
  • I’ll go over the ways in which Jesus is a son of God, just like Adam, Israel, and David, in this section.
  • In the following paragraphs, I shall discuss the relationship between his fulfillment of these tasks and his own divine identity as God the Son.
  • 8

God’s Image: Adam as God’s Son and Christ as the Last Adam

Adam is unmistakably identified as the ″son of God″ in Luke 3:38.Luke’s genealogy of Jesus concludes with the identification of Jesus as Adam’s offspring via Abraham’s familial line (3:23–38), which comes at the end of the narrative.This genealogy, which appears at the beginning of Jesus’ public career, names Jesus as the ″son of Adam″ as well as the ″son of God.″ With reference to Genesis 5:1–3, Brandon Crowe says, ″Analogous to Adam’s fatherhood of Seth (and down down the line), God is Father to Adam, and hence Adam ought to be seen as God’s son.″ 9 It is elaborated in the Gospels, by Paul, and by the author of Hebrews as to the theological importance of this relationship between Jesus and Adam.10 In Romans 5:14, the apostle Paul portrays Adam as a symbol of Christ.

  1. In 1 Corinthians 15:45, he refers to Jesus as the ″last Adam,″ continuing the Adam-typology he began with.
  2. Jesus is described as ″the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation″ in Colossians 1:15, according to the Bible.
  3. In addition, the Son is described in Hebrews 1:3 as ″the brilliance of the glory of God and the precise imprint of his being.″ It is clear from these words that there is an important relationship between sonship, image, and glory.

Only, although Adam fell short of God’s glory (while still keeping the image of God), the final Adam is the real son, image, and glory of God, whereas Adam fell short of God’s glory.God’s children are being led to glory in this capacity by him (Heb.2:10).To put it another way, Jesus is God’s genuine son because he is the true man.In addition, being a descendant of Adam, Jesus has all of the characteristics of the first man, only in a more perfect way than Adam.

God’s Covenant People: Israel as God’s Son and Christ as True Israel

In the next verses, Israel is referred to be God’s ″firstborn Son″ (Exod.4:22–23).When Yahweh threatens to murder Pharaoh’s firstborn son, Israel is referred to as his firstborn son in the context of the story.Following that, in Exodus, there is a competition to determine who is God’s legitimate son.

  1. As far as Egyptian beliefs were concerned, the firstborn son of the pharaoh would be the next ″son of God.″ God, on the other hand, demonstrates who is the genuine Son of God by freeing the descendants of Abraham from Egypt.
  2. Revelation from God later marks the exodus as the point at which God assumed the role of the father of Israel (Deut.
  3. 32:18; Psa.

80:15; Jer.31:9; Hos.11:1.) Also of significance, this corporate identity of God’s son clarifies how Israel is similar to Adam, since Israel is referred to as a ″corporate Adam.″ 11 As a result, what started with Adam is now being carried on in Israel until it reaches Christ.Matthew, in his Gospel, identifies Jesus as the True Israel when he quotes Hosea 11:1 in Matthew 2:13–15—″Out of Egypt I have called my son,″ Matthew says of his son, who is called ″out of Egypt.″ He shows how Jesus is God’s Son by using Israel’s title and applying it to Jesus in the Gospels.12 A similar pattern may be found in Matthew 4:1–11, where Jesus is carried into the desert for forty days by the Spirit, symbolizing the sort of son Jesus is—a son who is like Israel—and the kind of son Israel was.

13 But, unlike Israel, Jesus will not defy his Father; instead, he will demonstrate his obedience to the point of death, therefore becoming the firstborn from the dead (Col.1:18).

See also:  Who Saw Jesus After Resurrection

God’s King: David’s Son as God’s Son and Christ as the Son of David

The most crucial ″son of God″ title that Jesus obtains has something to do with the King of Israel, David.We discover the following lines in Psalm 2:7: ″You are my Son, and today I have begotten you.″ Rather than a literal declaration of Jesus’ divinity, this phrase is a lyrical elaboration of God’s covenant with David in 2 Samuel 7, as it was intended in its original context.14 In 2 Samuel 7, God told David that he would be able to establish a home (i.e., a dynasty) for him.God told David that he would have a son who would sit on an eternal throne (vv.

  1. 12–14) and would be the son of God as part of the covenant.
  2. The Lord declares of David’s son: ″I will be to him like a father, and he shall be as a son to me″ (v.
  3. 14).

Solomon was the one who brought this promise to fruition in Israel’s recent history.As the leader of the country from Zion, he reigned with wisdom and justice, bringing peace and blessing to the people and bringing them closer together.Unfortunately, the loyalty of David’s sons was only temporary.Solomon turned his back on God and chose to serve idols instead.As time progressed, most of David’s descendants violated their bond with God, and they lost their authority to rule over the nation of Israel.

Nonetheless, the model for a Davidic king who was also a son of God had been cast, and while the Prophets bemoaned the fall of David’s family, they started to predict a son of David whose righteousness would restore the kingdom of Israel to its rightful place.Several further prophecies, including those of Isa.42, 49, 50, and 53, and those of Jeremiah 30:21 and Zechariah 3:1–10, 6:9–15, as well as Psalms 110 and 132, raised the prospect of a new covenant with the people of God.And in each and every occasion, this optimism was expressed in terms of David’s descendants.15 In the New Testament, Jesus is identified as the son of David, whose righteousness under the law demonstrates that he is God’s genuine son, therefore bringing all of the promises of the new covenant to fulfillment and establishing the kingdom of God on earth.Indeed, the fact that the gospel message is founded on promises made to David is instructive (Rom.

1:3; 2 Tim.2:8).To confine ourselves to a single text, Romans 1:2–4 shows how Jesus, as David’s son, is the Son of God and the only hope of redemption for the world.This section of Scripture describes Christ gaining the title ″Son of God″ during his resurrection, as described by Paul.According to verses 3–4, ″concerning his Son, who was descended from David according to flesh and was declared to be the Son of God in power according to the Spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord,″ God is speaking about his Son, who was descended from David according to flesh and was declared to be the Son of God in power according to the Spirit of holiness.In terms of interpretation, this text is best viewed in terms of Christ’s elevation as a result of his resurrection.

  1. 16 While Jesus was known during his whole human existence as God the Son, it was only after his resurrection that he was given the title ″Son of God.″ This is further supported by Acts 13:32–33 and Hebrews 5:5–6, among other passages.
  2. This prestigious title may be traced back to 2 Samuel 7:14.
  3. Only now is it being applied to Jesus, who has demonstrated that he is God’s real son and deserving of an eternal reign in heaven.
  4. Because Jesus’ humanity has been ″perfected,″ as the book of Hebrews affirms, it is only after this that he is given the title ″Son of God″ (Heb.
  5. 5:5–6).
  6. This is why the author of Hebrews contends that it was essential for the Son to learn obedience by going through pain (v.

8).In other words, when Christ resurrected from the grave and ascended to the right hand of the Father (as prophesied in Psalm 110:1), he subdued all of creation and placed everything under his feet.As the son of David, who is also the son of God, Jesus gained the authority to rule over heaven and earth (Matt.28:18) as a result of his exaltation.

  • 17 In summary, Jesus has accomplished what Adam, Israel, and David were unable to do—that is, show their sonship.
  • In a fantastic twist of fate, his resurrection turns out to be his coronation.
  • This is identified by Paul at the outset of Romans, and he describes it as the central theme of the gospel message.
  • As the eternal Son of God is acknowledged as the Son to whom redemptive history has pointed (cf.
  • 1Pet.

1:10–12), God in Christ really combines all things in heaven and on earth (Eph.1:10), as the eternal Son of God links all things in heaven and on earth (Eph.1:10).

The Divine Son: The Son of God is God the Son

In Gal.4:4–5, the Bible says that ″when the fullness of time had come,″ God sent out his Son, born of a woman and born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, so that we may be adopted as sons.To put it another way, when the divine Son took on the form of a human being, he came to perform the function that had been predetermined for him by Adam, Israel, and David.However, it is not as if Jesus Christ was an afterthought in this story.

  1. These ″earlier″ sons of God were types and shadows of the genuine Son, who actually arrived before them, since the Son was the eternally born God, who had come before them (John 1:18).
  2. The New Testament teaches us that Jesus is the Son of God in two ways.
  3. First, he is the Son of God in a physical sense.

He is a son of God, just as Adam, Israel, and David were, and he is also God the Son, the second member of the Trinity, just as Adam, Israel, and David were.Although this fact leads us to the mystery of the incarnation, it also resolves the tension we see in the many different applications of the phrase ″son of God.″ In what follows, we will look at a few instances in Scripture where we may perceive this fact, namely, that Jesus is the divine Son.The Gospel of John is a good place to start.Beginning with his prologue (John 1:1–18), we see that John refers to Jesus as the divine Son of God.In asserting that Jesus is ″the only Son from the Father,″ John refers to Jesus as ″the eternal Word who took on flesh and lived among us″ (v.

14).Various translations of the Greek term monogenes include ″only begotten″ (KJV, NASB), ″one and only″ (NIV), and ″only″ (NIV) (ESV).It has a particular significance for John (see 1 John 1:14, 18; 3:16, 18; 1 John 4:9) and has presented several difficulties to interpreters throughout history.18 Whether or not this term supports the concept of everlasting generation, it unambiguously identifies Jesus as God’s divine Son in the New Testament.In contrast to the other sons of God, he is a divine Son, and throughout his Gospel, John emphasizes Jesus’ divine character.19 For example, John the Baptist defines himself as the one who prepares the path of the Lord by quoting Isaiah 40:3 as his source of inspiration (1:23).

Jesus is the incarnation of Yahweh, whom John claims to be greater than himself since he came before him (vv.15, 30).20 A second passage in John 5:18 refers to the Son as ″equal″ with the Father, which prompted the Jewish authorities to support Jesus’ crucifixion.The connection between the Father and the Son is explained in verses 19–29.The fact that Jesus is a divine son is demonstrated in these passages while also emphasizing the human obedience of the Son to the Father.The Bible says in John 5:26, ″For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has permitted the Son to have life in himself.″ This claim to divine aseity must be understood in light of the Son’s everlasting ontology, rather than as a result of his incarnation, in the context of John.

  1. 21 Moreover, when Jesus declares, ″Before Abraham was, I am,″ he is identifying himself as the divine son, which lends credence to this view (v.
  2. 58).
  3. A reference to God’s almighty name (″I am who I am,″ Exod.
  4. 3:14) is made by the phrase ″I am who I am,″ and Jesus’s antecedent existence (″before Abraham″) unquestionably establishes Jesus as the everlasting Son.
  5. Another example is Jesus’ speech to his Father in John 17, which I will cover briefly.
  6. Jesus explains the glory he experienced with his Father before the creation of the world in his prayer that God would honor him on earth (v.

2).(v.5).When Jesus states in verse 24 that he would share his glory with his followers, it is clear that what his disciples will see is a mirror of the splendor that he has shared with the Father from the beginning of creation.

  • As a result, in their shared divine nature, Jesus, as God’s Son, is one with the Father, according to the Bible (10:30).
  • 22 The other Gospels likewise make reference to Jesus’ divine essence, as does the New Testament.
  • ″Immanuel, God with us,″ says Matthew 1:23, referring to Jesus as ″God with us.″ As seen in Mark 2:12–12 and 4:35–41, Jesus is shown to be forgiving sins and calming the storm, respectively.
  • These are two instances in which Jesus’ acts indicate how he accomplished what only God was capable of doing (cf.
  • John 5:19, 30; 7:16; 14:31; 15:15).

Luke 1:35 makes it clear that Jesus does not have an earthly father, which adds further emphasis to the title ″Son of God.″ Instead, ″Jesus is identified as God’s Son because he was conceived by the Holy Spirit, rather than by a human father,″ according to the Christian faith.23 Finally, at the conclusion of Matthew’s Gospel, the Son is linked with the Father and the Holy Spirit in the baptismal formula of Matthew 28:19, which represents the union of the Father and the Son.Last but not least, in Matthew 26:63–64, Jesus is accused of blasphemy because he equated himself with the divine being.In the same way that Jesus is accused of blasphemy in John’s Gospel, Jesus is accused of making himself one with the Father.According to the Gospels, Jesus is not only the son of God in accordance with his humanity, but he is also the Son of God in accordance with his divinity.

  1. And this witness is carried on throughout the rest of the New Testament (see Acts 20:28; Rom.
  2. 9:5; Col.
  3. 1:19; 2:9; Titus 2:13; Heb.
  1. 1:8; 2Pet.
  2. 1:1).
  3. Nonetheless, because of space constraints, we will not go into detail about these passages; however, suffice it to state that in the worship of Jesus Christ as God’s Son, we find clear proof that Jesus Christ as God’s Son is more than a man and greater than any other Son of God.
  4. 24 As Larry Hurtado writes, ″It is clear from the entire fabric of Paul’s Christology that Paul considered Jesus as partaking in God’s characteristics and responsibilities, as sharing in God’s glory, and, most crucially, as deserving of formal reverence alongside God in Christian assemblies.
  5. 25 Truly, such reverence is only conceivable if Jesus, the Son of God, is in fact the Creator of the universe.

In order to continue to acknowledge that Jesus is the Son of God, everyone who are adopted as children of God via faith in Christ (Gal.3:26) must do so on a continual basis (John 20:31).As Scripture indicates, only those who have come to know the Son will enjoy the life that God promises to all who call on his name.In fact, this is precisely what the New Testament makes abundantly clear, what the Orthodox church has always recognized and defended, and what real followers continue to confess and believe: Jesus is God’s Son, the one to whom all Scripture points, the one who is both God and man.

What does Son of Man and Son of God mean?

The phrase ″Son of Man″ alludes to Jesus referring to Himself as the Son of Man. Why does He refer to Himself as both the Son of Man and the Son of God?

Bible Answer:

For Jesus Christ, the terms ″son of man″ and ″son of God″ are used interchangeably to allude to His humanity and deity, respectively. The Bible’s teaching was that Jesus Christ was both God and man at the same time. The following sections provide a more in-depth description of both words.

Son of Man – Old Testament

It appears 195 times in both the Old and New Testaments, with the phrase ″Son of Man″ being the most common.It appears 107 times in the Old Testament, with 93 of those occurrences being in the book of Ezekiel.Each time the term is used, it refers to a human being.Here are a few illustrations.

  1. Numbers 23:19 provides us with our first indication as to the meaning of the phrase ″son of man.″ God is not a man, so He would not lie, nor is He a son of man, so He would repent; He has stated it, and He will not back down from it.
  2. He may have made a statement, but will He not follow through on it?
  3. Numbers 23:19 is a verse from the Bible (NASB) In this context, it refers to people — either men or women.

The text simply states that God is not the same as we are.He is not a guy in any way.Men and women lie, but God is a truth-teller.The term ″son of man″ can also apply to the descendants or progeny of humans (Psalm 144:3; Isaiah 51:12; Jeremiah 49:18; Jeremiah 51:43; Ezekiel 2:1, 3, 6, 8; Daniel 8:17).This term is used by God to refer to the prophet Ezekiel, who is addressed as a ″son of man″ in another great example.

When I stood up, He said to me, ″Son of man, please rise up so that I may speak with you!″ 1:10 Ezekiel 2:10 (NASB) Nevertheless, the most significant application of this term is in the context of Jesus Christ.The book of Daniel has an important example, in which the author alludes to the second coming, or the return of Jesus Christ, as occurring in the future.A number of times during Jesus’ ministry, He referred to Himself as ″the Son of Man″ (Matthew 8:20; 9:6; 11:19; 16:27; 19:28; 26:64).I kept watching in my night visions, and there was a man who looked like the Son of Man descending down from the clouds of heaven, and He came up to the Ancient of Days and was presented to Him.Daniel 7:13 (NIV) (NASB) The phrase ″Son of Man″ carries messianic implications in this passage and alludes to a person who is descended from humans.It alludes to the coming of the Messiah, who would be born of a virgin (Genesis 3:15; Isaiah 7:14; 9:6; Micah 5:2).

It is a term given to the Messiah, who is identified as Jesus Christ.

Son of Man – New Testament

It appears 88 times in the New Testament, and only four times outside of the gospels, where it is translated as ″Son of Man.″ An extra connotation is attached to the phrase in the New Testament.Despite the fact that it still refers to a human being, it is also a title for Jesus Christ.Jesus was the epitome of what it meant to be human.He was God manifested in the form of a human being.

  1. He then told the paralytic, ″Rise, pick up your bed, and go home.″ ″But in so that you may be convinced that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins,″ He said.
  2. 9:6 (Matthew 9:6) (NASB) Because the Son of Man is the Supreme Ruler of the Sabbath.
  3. Because, just as JONAH WAS THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS IN THE BELLY OF THE SEA MONSTER, so will the Son of Man spend three days and three nights in the center of the earth, according to Matthew 12:8 (NASB).

Matthew 12:40 (KJV) (NASB) Luke 24:7 refers to Jesus as the ″Son of Man,″ and he states that He must be handed up to the authorities in order to be crucified.Men in human flesh suffer a physical death, not a spiritual death in the presence of an eternal God.The phrase ″Son of Man″ alludes to Jesus Christ, who is also known as the Messiah (John 4:25; 9:35-36).

Son of God

There are only 43 occurrences of the term ″Son of God″ in the New Testament, and each and every one of those occurrences refers to Jesus.It implies that Jesus is the Son of God.It does not imply that he was conceived by the Holy Spirit.It does not imply that He was the progeny of the Almighty.

  1. In John 10:30-35, this reality is plainly stated and shown.
  2. It is clear from the scripture that the Jews were aware of Jesus’ claim to be the Son of God.
  3. In John 10:30, Jesus declares that He is one with the Father and that He is the Son of God.

I and the Father are one and the same.10:30 a.m.(John 10:30 a.m.(NASB) The Greek term eis, which means ″one,″ was used by Jesus to refer to himself.Numbers such as 1, 2, 3, and so on are considered to be cardinal numbers.

That is, Jesus said that He was the Father and that the Father was Himself in the person of Jesus.He made reference to the doctrine of the trinity.God, according to both the Old and New Testaments, is a singular being (Deuteronomy 6:4; 1 Timothy 2:5; James 2:19).Take note of the religious leaders’ attitude to this situation.They realized He was claiming to be God at this point.″We do not stone You for doing a good deed; rather, we stone You for blasphemy; and we stone You because You, being a man, make yourself out to be God,″ they said.

John 10:33 (New American Standard Bible) In response, Jesus made the following statement to the Jews: ″Do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ″You are blaspheming,″ because I said, ″I am the Son of God″?″ (NASB) John 10:36 It appears that Jesus declared Himself to be the ″Son of God.″ This word was seen by the Jews as an assertion of divine authority.Because Jesus had declared Himself to be God, they understood what He was saying.As a result, they accused Jesus of being a blasphemer.They were well aware that Jesus was claiming to be God.That is what it means to be a ″Son of God,″ according to the Bible.The term ″Son of God″ refers to God himself.

Conclusion:

In summary, when the term ″Son of Man″ is used, it alludes to Jesus Christ’s humanity, and when the title ″Son of God″ is used, it refers to Jesus Christ’s divinity.Both titles were used to refer to Christ since He was both a man and a divine being.The phrase ″Son of Man″ was also used to allude to the Messiah.The Jews were well aware of the significance of these expressions.

  1. Today, we place a strong emphasis on the term ″son,″ and we are frequently unaware that these phrases had specific connotations in the past.
  2. Romans 1:2-4 is a significant verse in the Bible because it informs us that Jesus Christ is both a man and a divine being at the same time.
  3. Christ our Lord was foretold by God through His prophets in the holy Scriptures about His Son, who was born of a descendant of David according to flesh and blood, who was proclaimed the Son of God with authority by his resurrection from the dead in accordance with the Spirit of holiness, and who was thus declared to be the Son of God with power.

..Paul writes in Romans 1:24 that (NASB) The song ″Son of Man″ reminds us that Jesus took on human form in order to die on the cross.The title ″Son of God″ serves to remind us that Jesus is God, which allows Him to live a spotless life or to be the perfect Lamb of God.Only as the God-man was He able to die as a blameless, pure sacrifice for our sins on our behalf.All that is left for us to do is to trust that He is the only road to salvation.

If we would accept that, He is the only one who can save us from our sins…that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures, that He was buried, and that He was resurrected on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures…1 Corinthians 15:3-4 (New International Version) (NASB) When taken together, they demonstrate that Jesus was entirely human and completely divine.He was the God-man, to put it mildly.He was the everlasting, holy God who manifested himself in the form of a human being.Because He was a man, He could not have passed away.

If He hadn’t been God, He would have been a sinner like everyone else.However, in His role as the God-man, He was the sinless man – the ideal sacrifice — a sinless sacrifice for our sins.He was the perfect sacrifice for our sins.He came back to life and soared to the heavens once more.Greetings from the Lord!

Suggested Links:

What kind of death may the Son of Man suffer? What exactly does it mean to say that Jesus is the Son of God? Is God a man, or is he similar to a man? Glimpses of God on the Lookout for God

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What does it mean that Jesus is the Son of Man?

Answer to the question In the New Testament, Jesus is referred to be the ″Son of Man″ a total of 88 times.Throughout reality, the moniker ″Son of Man″ is the primary title that Jesus used to refer to Himself in the Bible (e.g., Matthew 12:32; 13:37; Luke 12:8; John 1:51).The only time the phrase ″Son of Man″ was used in a direct reference to Jesus, and it was by someone other than Jesus, was while Stephen was being killed, according to tradition (Acts 7:56).The term ″Son of Man″ refers to mankind.

  1. Other names for Christ, such as Son of God, are more overt in their emphasis on His divinity than the other titles.
  2. Son of Man, on the other hand, is a film that emphasizes Christ’s humanity.
  3. God referred to the prophet Ezekiel as ″son of man″ a total of 93 times.

God was just referring to Ezekiel as a human being in this manner.The phrase ″son of man″ is merely a periphrastic phrase that means ″human.″ Jesus Christ was a genuine human being in every sense of the word.He arrived ″in the flesh,″ as the saying goes (1 John 4:2).The term ″Son of Man″ conveys a sense of humility.It was the eternal character of the Second Person of the Trinity that caused him to leave the majesty of heaven and take on human flesh, becoming the Son of Man, who was born in a manger and ″despised and rejected by mankind″ (Isaiah 53:3).

″There was no place for the Son of Man to rest his head″ (Luke 9:58).The Son of Man ate and drank with sinners, as the Bible says (Matthew 11:19).The Son of Man was subjected to cruelty by human beings (Matthew 17:12).This deliberate lowering of His status from King of Heaven to Son of Man is the pinnacle of humility (see Philippians 2:6–8).He did this on purpose.The term ″Son of Man″ refers to a divinity.

It is true that Ezekiel was a son of man; but, Jesus is really the Son of Man.So Jesus is the greatest example of everything that God meant for people to be, the personification of truth and grace in the highest sense (John 1:14).″All of the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form″ in Him, according to the Bible (Colossians 2:9).As a result, the Son of Man was able to pardon sins on the cross (Matthew 9:6).The Lordship of the Sabbath belongs to the Son of Man (Mark 2:28).Specifically, the Son of Man came to rescue lives (Luke 9:56; 19:10), to rise from the dead (Mark 9:9), and to administer justice (Matthew 5:17).

  1. (John 5:27).
  2. ″I say to all of you: From now on, you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of the Mighty One, and he will come on the clouds of sky,″ Jesus stated during His trial before the high priest (Matthew 26:64).
  3. This comment effectively brought the trial to a close, as the court convicted the Lord of blasphemy and sentenced Him to death (verses 65–66) soon after.
  4. The coming of the Son of Man is a fulfillment of prophecy.
  5. It was Daniel 7:13–14 that inspired Jesus’ claim to be the Son of Man in his appearance before the high priest.
  6. ″In my vision at night, I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven,″ Daniel had seen in a dream.

He approached the Ancient of Days and was escorted into the presence of the God of the Sun.He was endowed with authority, grandeur, and sovereign power, and he was worshipped by all peoples, countries, and men of every language on the face of the earth.His dominion is an immortal dominion that will never be destroyed, and his kingdom is a kingdom that will never be destroyed.Messiah, now referred to as the ″Son of Man,″ would be showered with glory, worship, and an everlasting dominion, as predicted by Daniel, and Jesus attributed this prophecy to Himself.

  • On a number of other instances, Jesus talked of His impending kingdom (Matthew 13:41; 16:28).
  • When the author of Hebrews used a passage from the Psalms, he was implying that Jesus, the genuine Son of Man, would be the ruler of all things (Hebrews 2:5–9; cf.
  • Psalm 8:4–6; cf.
  • Hebrews 2:5–9).
  • It will be the Son of Man who will reign as King, in accordance with the prophecies of the Old Testament.

Jesus was entirely God (according to John 1:1), yet He was also totally human (according to John 1:1).(John 1:14).He is entitled of both names since He is both the Son of God and the Son of Man.Return to the previous page: Questions regarding Jesus Christ When scripture says that Jesus is the Son of Man, what exactly does it mean?

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Why is Jesus Called the ″Son of Man″? — Knowing Scripture

  1. Jesus refers to himself as ″the son of man″ on several occasions, which appears to be a fairly clumsy self-reference.
  2. My observations of popular preaching and teaching have revealed that the phrase ″son of man″ is frequently used to create a vague idea, if not specifically stated, that Jesus’ humanity is being emphasized, underlining the fact that Jesus is a genuine flesh and blood human being.
  3. Rather from only being the son of ″God,″ Jesus is also the son of ″man,″ in what is known as a proto-two-nature Christology.
  4. Well, I don’t think that’s the point here, to be honest.
  5. After all, first and foremost, ″son of man″ is what Jesus referred to himself as throughout his earthly ministry, at which time no one had any difficulty accepting that he was a human being.
  6. First and foremost, it does not make much biblical sense to treat the distinction between ″son of man″ and ″son of God″ as being equal to the distinction between ″human″ and ″divine.″ This is due to the fact that many ordinary individuals (not to mention angels) have been referred to as ″sons of God″ throughout history: Adam, the kings of Judah, Christians, the Sethites or fallen angels (take your pick) of Genesis 6, and so on.

How to Make Biblical Sense: Generic Applications Consider the fact that the term ″Son of God″ does not necessarily indicate a divine character when used as an ordinary title.A person’s identity as God the Son, the second person of the Trinity, entails more than merely being a member of God’s family.Furthermore, we should not assume that the phrase ″son of man″ is merely or predominantly used to refer to Jesus’ human nature or personhood.For this reason, if we want to grasp what Jesus actually meant by it, we need look at how the title ″son of man″ was used in the Old Testament, which is Jesus’ source of inspiration.Consequently, the following are some fundamental observations concerning how the title is employed: (1) The title ″son of man″ appears multiple times in the Old Testament as a means of drawing attention to a person’s frailty or weakness.It appears to have this sense in Job 16:21, Job 25:6, and Job 35:8, as well as in Isaiah 51:12 and other passages.

Additionally, the God who does not lie or repent in Numbers 23:19 is contrasted with the ″son of man″ who does both in the same verse (Numbers 23:20).(2) There is one instance in Isaiah (56:2) and two instances in Jeremiah (50:40 and 51:43) where the phrase does not appear to signify special weakness, but rather appears to be a euphemism for the word ″human″ instead.These two types are represented by a small number of applications in the Psalms.In light of these passages, it’s possible to argue that Jesus is referring to himself as ″son of man″ as a title of humility, or perhaps as a manner of drawing attention to his weakened incarnational situation.

But this is a stretch.Jesus was, without a question, more humble than any other man who has ever walked the face of the globe, but I doubt that this was his intention.As previously said, during his earthly mission, Jesus did not have to contend with people’ too exalted ideas of him, as was the case with the apostles.The Psalms have one instance in which the title is employed in a context that emphasizes power rather than weakness: Psalm 73.This is what Psalm 80:16-18 says: ″They have burnt it with fire; they have chopped it down; may they perish at your hand’s rebuke!″ But place your hand on the guy at your right hand, the son of man whom you have built up to be a formidable opponent for yourself!And we will never turn away from you; give us life and we will call upon your name!

  • – The king of Judah is most certainly being alluded to in this passage.
  • He is the guy who sits at the right hand of God.
  • Even while the psalmist wonders that the God who created the skies has care for the ″son of man,″ he realizes that God has crowned the son of man with glory and honor, and has appointed him as the overseer of all God’s works in Psalm 8:4-8 as well.
  • As a result, ″son of man″ might allude to a strong or at the very least a respected individual.
  • It’s also worth mentioning that, when Psalm 8 is taken into consideration, the Hebrew phrase ben-adam, son of ″Adam,″ is used.
  • Ben-adam is a general term for ″mankind″ or ″human,″ but it refers to the first man Adam, of whom every human is a descendant or descendant.
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Of fact, when Psalm 8 sings of how the ″son of man″ is entrusted with sovereignty over creation, it is apparent that it is referring to the original Adam in the first place.After considering these three types of usage, we may conclude that the term ″son of man″ as a generic title can be used to emphasize humanity’s fragility in comparison to God, but it can also be used to conjure up memories of humanity’s lofty position as God’s image and ruler of creation.It’s a title that may be both humiliating and exalting, depending on the situation and circumstances.

  1. Before crowning Prince Caspian as king of Narnia, Aslan taught him that to be born as a son of Adam is to have ″both dignity enough to elevate the head of the poorest beggar, and humiliation enough to bend the shoulders of the greatest emperor on the face of the globe.″ However, there is more!
  2. In the Old Testament, the phrase ″son of man″ is used in two more more specific contexts.
  3. To begin with, the word tons is employed in Ezekiel.
  4. In fact, Ezekiel is referred to as ″son of man″ more times in the Bible than Jesus is in all four gospels taken together (93x for Ezekiel vs.
  • 82x for Jesus).
  • Apocalyptic visions are shown in Daniel’s second vision, in which he sees ″a son of man coming with the clouds of heaven″ and receiving a dominion that would last forever and ever.
  • Daniel is subsequently referred to as the ″son of man″ shortly after (8:17).
  • Considering that Jesus’ personal usage of the phrase is frequently associated with comments about his ″coming with the clouds of heaven,″ Daniel provides the most promising immediate historical context.

In Ezekiel, however, the sheer volume of occurrences suggests that we shouldn’t dismiss this possibility, especially given the fact that Ezekiel and Daniel were near contemporaries, with Daniel being a bit younger and in all likelihood perfectly aware of the fact that Ezekiel had previously been referred to as the ″son of man.″ Perhaps Daniel was referring to ″one like a son of man″ when he said he saw ″one like Ezekiel.″ It’s something to think about.Before we move on to the gospels, there’s one more thing to consider.The moniker ″Son of Man″ is one that Jesus himself has used almost exclusively to refer to himself.It entirely vanishes once the gospels have been written.It did not become part of the typical Christian way of life or worship.Stephen did see a vision of ″the son of man″ standing at the right hand of the Almighty God.

  • It also occurs twice in the Book of Revelation: first, the son of man is standing in the midst of the lampstands, and then he is seated on a cloud, holding a sickle in his hand.
  • But that’s all there is to it.
  • This information must be taken into consideration.
  • Can you tell me whether there’s something about the specific setting of Jesus’ mission that makes the term especially suited to that historical period?Son of Man in the Gospels: Is There Anything to Consider?
  • There isn’t a single gospel in which the title is the most prominent.
  • It is mentioned 29 times in Matthew, 14 times in Mark, 26 times in Luke, and 13 times in John.

More than anything, this is a reflection of the lengths of the Gospels in comparison to one another.As a side note, this is key proof that the Gospels (including the apparently late and mythologized John) accurately represent Jesus’ actual words, rather than the words of others.Liberal academics have frequently argued that Jesus’ ideas in the gospels are just early church ideology repackaged as though they were spoken by Jesus.But, if that were the case, why would they have Jesus repeatedly refer to himself in ways that he is never referred to in other Christian writing?The only reason why the Gospels would have Jesus referring to himself as something other than what the church would later refer to him as is if he truly did refer to himself in that way.

  1. If you take the time to look over the lists of references in each of the gospels listed above, one thing that will stand out to you is that there does not appear to be any specific relationship between the label ″son of man″ and any one feature of Jesus’ career or teaching that you can identify.
  2. It’s simply what he refers to himself as.
  3. If Jesus is speaking about his miracles, preaching, approaching death, kingdom-bringing power, authority to pardon sin, or lordship over the Sabbath in any way, he will use the pronoun ″I″ or ″me.″ So, why would he refer to himself as such?

According to this context, I believe that Jesus’ self-description as ″son of man″ is due largely to two considerations: first, Jesus is the son of God, and second, Jesus is the son of man.

  1. The resemblance between his ministry and that of Ezekiel
  2. According to Daniel’s vision, Jesus is the one who receives and governs over the kingdom of God
  3. Jesus is the fulfillment of Daniel’s vision
  1. The Prophet Ezekiel and the Son of Man Ezekiel, the son of man, was selected as a prophet to Israel when he was thirty years old, beside a river, similar to how Jesus was chosen as a prophet.
  2. Here’s what he was assigned: Son of man, I am sending you to the people of Israel, to the countries of rebels, to those who have turned their backs on me and rebelled against me.
  3. They, as well as their fathers, have continued to trespass against me to this day…
  4. The fact that a prophet has been among them will be known to them regardless of whether they listen or refuse to listen (since they are a rebellious house) (Ezekiel 2:3-5).
  5. Jesus, the Son of Man and the greater Ezekiel, was sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel in the same way that Ezekiel and the other prophets were sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
  6. It was only what he had heard from the Father that he shared with them.

A abomination was seen in the temple, according to Ezekiel 8:6, and the prophet asked: ″Son of man, do you see what they are doing, the vast abominations that the house of Israel are doing here, to drive me away from my sanctuary?″ In addition, Jesus observed abominations in the temple and drove them out with a whip made of cords and thorns.Jesus used parables in order for Israel, who was rebelling against him, to not grasp what he was saying.Ezekiel, like many other prophets, was a parable-speaker (17:2).Ezekiel (9:1-11) and Jesus (in the Olivet Discourse) both foretold the fall of Jerusalem and both declared it.Symbolically, Ezekiel carried Israel’s punishment (4:4-8), just as Jesus will in actuality bear Israel’s suffering.There are many more parallels than just these.

Of course, there are numerous parallels between Jesus and other biblical figures such as Jeremiah, etc.As a result, it is usually best not to stress this issue too hard.Moreover, the more widely recognized historical context for the moniker ″son of man″ is found in Daniel 7, which we will now turn our attention to.The Book of Daniel and the Son of Man A vision of ″one like a son of man″ receiving a kingdom appears shortly after Ezekiel’s, and Daniel declares that ″all peoples, countries, and languages″ would serve him as a result.

When he comes, it will be in the clouds of heaven, just as Jesus predicted he would do (and it will be in the form of a ″coming″ into heavenly glory and power, not a ″coming down to earth,″ as many end-times enthusiasts believe).As previously said, it’s probable that Daniel is making a reference to Ezekiel in this passage.Because the ″son of man″ in Daniel’s vision is later associated with ″the saints of the most high,″ if this is true, it would be given to Ezekiel as a representation of a loyal remnant of the people of God (7:27).In addition, it’s worth noting that the ″son of man″ is given sovereignty over the kingdoms that were represented by creatures in Daniel’s vision: the kingdoms of the lion, the kingdoms of the bear, the kingdoms of the leopard, and the kingdom of the dragon.In this scenario, Adam is reminded of his original mission to rule over the creatures of the world.Daniel’s son of man is the one who is carrying out Adam’s charge to ″rule″ as the image of God, according to the book of Daniel.

  • This is precisely what Jesus’ function is: he is the final Adam, the loyal Israelite, the main representation of the saints, the perfect image of God, and the one who will inherit and dominate all of creation.
  • That is what it means for Jesus to be called the Son of Man, according to the Bible.
  • He is the son of Adam in the most literal meaning of the word.
  • Second son who obtains the inheritance in preference to first son – as with Isaac and Jacob – is known as the heir apparent.
  • However, this post has grown in length.
  • Hopefully, this serves as a prompt and a point of departure for additional consideration.

As a last word of application, it’s worth remembering that people who are in Christ partake in his inheritance and will share in Adam’s reign over creation with Jesus in the days to come.If that thinking and that faith don’t inspire us to reach the level of maturity and holiness that is appropriate for kings, I don’t know what else will motivate us.When Aslan argues that being a son of Adam is a source of shame, he is speaking about the sin and corruption that Adam’s descendants have inherited, not about Adam himself as a created entity, as is common practice.

  1. All of God’s creation is excellent, and the phrase ″son of man″ in the Bible does not appear to refer to a sinner, but rather to a normal human being.
  2. However, I make it a point to incorporate as many Narnia illustrations as I possibly can.

If Jesus was the Son of God, why did He call Himself the Son of Man?

  1. At first look, this appears to be some sort of contradiction, but in reality, there is no such thing as a contradiction.
  2. An analysis of the Bible demonstrates that the term ″Son of Man″ has a wide range of meaning.
  3. First and foremost, although while the phrase ″Son of Man″ refers to Jesus’ humanity, it does not imply that He is a rejection of His deity.
  4. Jesus did not cease to be God simply because he became a man.
  5. The incarnation of Christ did not imply the loss of god, but rather the addition of humanity to the divine.
  6. On a number of times, Jesus made the bold assertion that he was God (Matthew 16:16,17; John 8:58; 10:30).

However, He was also a human creature, in addition to being divine (see Philippians 2:6-8).He was a combination of two natures (divine and human) in a single individual.Furthermore, Scripture demonstrates that Jesus was not renouncing His Godhead when he referred to himself as the Son of Man, as some have suggested.As a matter of fact, the fact that the title ″Son of Man″ is employed in Scripture in the context of Christ’s divinity is extremely instructive.According to the Bible, only God can forgive sins, among other things (Isaiah 43:25; Mark 2:7).However, as the ″Son of Man,″ Jesus has the authority to forgive sins (Mark 2:10).

In the same way, Christ will return to Earth as the ″Son of Man″ among clouds of glory to establish His kingdom on Earth (Matthew 26:63-64).Be evidence of His deity, Jesus refers to Daniel 7:13, in which the Messiah is referred to as the ″Ancient of Days,″ a statement that is used to suggest His deity (cf.Daniel 7:9).Furthermore, when Jesus was questioned by the high priest whether He was the ″Son of God″ (Matthew 26:63), He replied yes, indicating that He was the ″Son of Man″ who would come in great power and glory (Matthew 25:31-46).

(verse 64).This demonstrated that Jesus Himself used the term ″Son of Man″ to denote His divinity as the Son of God, rather than a translation of the phrase.To summarize: ″Son of Man″ is a term that underlines who Jesus is in regard to His incarnation and His mission of redemption.When a family member was imprisoned in the Old Testament (Leviticus 25:25-26, 48-49; Ruth 2:20), the next of kin (someone who was related by blood) always served as the ″kinsman-redeemer″ and rescued him or her from prison.So that He might serve as our Kinsman-Redeemer and save us from our sin, Jesus became connected to us ″by blood″ (that is, He took on the form of a human).Dr.

  • Ron Rhodes of Reasoning from the Scriptures Ministries is the author of this article.
  • Ron Rhodes owns the copyright to this work from 1999.

References to Jesus in the Old Testament

The very term Christian stems from the Greek word meaning Messiah, and indeed in Christian theology, the terms Christ and Messiah are relatively interchangeable. The emergence of Christianity among Jewish communities in the first century is often attributed to the belief that Jesus is the messiah that Jews had awaited, as prophesized in the Old Testament of the Bible.

References to the Birth of Jesus

  1. Those who think that Jesus is the messiah prophesied in the Old Testament books of the Bible sometimes point to passages that appear to represent the birth of Jesus as it is interpreted within the Christian religion as evidence of their belief.
  2. The following are some of the more often cited passages in the Old Testament that support this messianic interpretation and the birth of Jesus: Isaiah 7:14 (KJV) To demonstrate his presence among us, the Lord himself will send you a sign: a virgin will get pregnant and give birth to a son, whom she will name Immanuel.
  3. Several interpretations have been put out in relation to this verse, notably in relation to difficulties of translation, particularly in relationship with the term ″virgin.″ Despite this, many people favor this translation of the Old Testament and cite to the interpretation of the term ″Immanuel″ as it is presented in the Bible as an additional reason for their support.
  4. Instead of the name itself, it is thought that the meaning of the name Immanuel, which means ″God is with us,″ represents Jesus in the Gospel of Matthew.
  5. Micah 5:

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